STUDY MATERIAL FOR B COM ( DISTANCE EDUCATION) - CALICUT UNIVERSITY

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UNIVERSITY OF CALICUT B Com/BBA (2011 Admn. Onwards) II SEMESTER CORE COURSE ‐ FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING QUESTION BANK: Answers

Answers are shown in BOLD

1) Outstanding expenditure is a __________ account.
a) Nominal
b) Personnel
c) Real
d) Current
2) _________ deals with the depreciation account.
a) AS4
b) AS6
c) AS10
d) AS13
3) According to which concept, proprietor of a business is treated as a creditors to the extent of his
capital
a) Money measurement
b) Cost
c) Dual aspect
d) Business entity
4) Net worth of business means
a) Total assets
b) Fixed assets – current assets.
c) Equity capital
d) Total assets – total liabilities
5) The policy of anticipate no profit and provide for all possible losses arises due to
a) Convention of consistency
b) Convention of conservatism
c) Convention of materiality
d) Convention of full disclosure
6) Capital account is a
a) Fictitious account
b) Personal account
c) Liability account
d) Nominal account
7) Revenue is generally recognized as being earned at the point of time
a) Sale is effected
b) Cash is effected
c) Production is completed
d) All of the above
8) The fundamental accounting equation Assets = liabilities is the formal expression of
a) Matching concept
b) Entity concept
c) Going concern concept
d) Dual aspect concept

9) Depreciation is
a) An accounting necessity only
b) Tax necessity only
c) Tax and accounting necessity
d) Tax, account and audit necessity
10) ‘Every debit has a corresponding credit’ it is the concept of
a) Incomplete records
b) Cost sheets
c) Single entry system
d) Double entry system
11) Bank loan account is a ______
a) Real account
b) Nominal account
c) Personal account
d) Current account
12) The process of recording transactions in a journal is known as _______
a) Journalizing
b) Journal
c) Posting
d) Journal entry
13) Accounting records transactions in term of
a) Commodity units
b) Production units
c) Monetary units
d) Expense units
14) Income received in advance by a business units is
a) A liability
b) An assets
c) A loss
d) Gain
15) Expenditure incurred by a publisher for acquiring copyright is a.
a) Deferred revenue expenditure
b) Capital expenditure
c) Revenue expenditure
d) Assets
16) Loss of cash by theft committed by cashier after business hours is a
a) Revenue loss
b) Deferred revenue loss
c) Capital loss
d) Business loss
17) An expenditure incurred to derive long term advantage is
a) Revenue expenditure
b) Expense
c) Capital expenditure
d) Deferred capital expenditure
18) In accounting only ________ discount is recorded
a) Trade
b) Cash
c) Real
d) None of these
19) Debit balance of all personal accounts are collectively called
a) Sundry creditors
b) Sundry debtors
c) Personal account balance
d) Total of personal accounts

Business Environment Question Bank with Answers, 1-150 (Calicut University)

1. --------is the process of analyzing the environment for the identification of factors which have

impact on or have implication for the business.

(a)Forecasting (b) assessment (c ) scanning (d) None of these

2. The low income economies are sometimes referred to as ----------

(a) First world (b) Second world (c ) Third world (d) None of these

3. This is the Govt.’s strategy in respect of public expenditure and revenue which have a significant

Impact on business.

(a) Monetary policy (b) Fiscal Policy (c ) Trade policy (d) Foreign exchange policy

4. In which year the constitution of India was amended to add, among other things, that India should

be a socialist state?

(a) 1954 (b) 1976 (c ) 1980 (d) 1985

5. The method used for transferring complex technology is -----------

(a) Trunkey contracts (b) Licensing agreements (c )Training of experts (d) None of these

6. ---------is concerned with holding the balance between economic and social goals and between

Individual and communal goals.

(a) Corporate Management (b) Corporate governance (c ) Business ethics (d) None

7. In which year the Adrian Cadbury Committee on corporate governance was appointed?

(a) 1991 (b) 1996 (c ) 1980 (d) 2000

8. CII stands for

(a) Confederation of Indian Industries (b) Condition of Indian Industries

(c ) Classes of Indian Industries (d) Civilians of Indian Industries

9. According to Birla Committee on Corporate governance, the non executive directors should

Comprise at least -------- per cent of the Board, if one of them is the chairman

(a)30% (b) 20 (c ) 10 (d) 70

10. According to Birla Committee, the non executive directors should Comprise at least -------- per

cent of the Board, if the Chairman and managing director is the same person.

(a) 50% (b) 20% (c ) 10 (d) 20

11. --------- is concerned with the withdrawal of State from an industry or sector, partially or fully

(a) Liberalization (b) Modernisation (c ) Privatization (d) Globalisation.

12. In which year Govt. of India appointed the Rangarajan Committee on disinvestment in PSEs

(a) 1990, (b) 1991 (c ) 1993 (d) 1996

13. The Govt. of India constituted a Public sector Disinvestment commission on------

(a) 15 March 1991 (b) 23 Aug 1993 (c ) 23 Sept.1993 (d) 06 May 1994

14. Which Act was replaced with the introduction of Competition Act 2002?

(a) FERA (b ) MRTP (c) POTA (d) None of these

15. Competition Act was enacted in the year-------

(a) June 2002 (b) Dec. 2002 (c ) January 1999 (d) None of these

16. Which committee recommended the enactment of Competition Act

(a) High level Committee on competition policy and Law

(b) A Committee on Law and Order

(c ) A Central Committee for Research and Policy

(d) None of these.

17. ----------is the rate at which the central bank discounts or rediscounts the eligible bills.

(a) Credit rate (b) Bank rate (c ) Bill rate (d) Deposit rate

18. Who is concerned with the auditing of the receipts and expenditure of the State and Central Govt.

(a) Accountant General (b) Comptroller and Auditor General

( C) Reserve Bank of India (d) None of the above.

19. Which policy is concerned with raising revenue through taxation and deciding on the level and

Pattern of expenditure?

(a) Monetary policy (b) fiscal Policy (c ) Cash policy (d) None of these

20. Who is responsible for presenting the Union Budget before the Parliament?

(a) Prime Minister (b) Finance Minister (c) RBI Governor (d) None of the se

21. ---------is concerned with all current expenditure of the Govt. on administration

(a) Revenue expenditure (b) Capital expenditure (c) Total Expenditure (d) None

22. The Planning commission was set up in India in --------

(a) 1950 (b) 1951 (c) 1947 (d) 1952

23. Who is the President of National Development Council ?

(a) Finance Minister (b) Prime Minister (c) Monteng sing Aluvalia (d) None

24. The intervening period between third and forth Five year plans is regarded as ---

(a) Plan period (b) Plan holidays (c ) Plan days (c) None of these

25. Which Govt. introduced the concept of ‘ Rolling Plan’

(a) Manmohan govt. (b) Vajpayee (c) Janatha Govt. (d) Rao Govt.

26. From which five year plan ‘growth with social justice’ has received added emphasis?

(a) 5th (b) 4th (c ) 3rd (d) 6th

27. Which sector got priority in the 1st five year plan?

(a) Agriculture (b) Industrial (c) Infrastructure (d) Communication

28. GAAT was born in the year--------------

(a) 1948 (b)1945 (c) 1947 (d) 1950

29. What was the predecessor of WTO?

(a) GAAT (b) IMF (c) ADB (d) None of the above

30. In which year WTO was formulated ?

(a) 1995 (b) 1948 (c )1991 (d) 1988

31. FEMA was passed in the year ---

(a) 1999 (b) 1989 (c) 2000 (d) 1997

32. ----------refers to regulation of credit for specific purpose or branches of economic activity?

(a) Credit control (b) Selective Control (c) Bank control (d) None of these

33. ---------is the difference between the market value of security and the amount lent by the Bank?

(a) Loan amount (b) Margin of safety (c ) Margin (d) None of these

34. The quota system was first introduced in the year?

(a) 1955 (b) 1960 (c) 1949 (d) 1952

35. PLR stands for

(a) Prime ministers Land Recovery (b) Prime Lending Rate (c) Price Leverage Rate

(d) None of these

36. The policy of govt. related to Export and Import is

(a) IMEX policy (b) EXIM policy (c) Export policy (d) None of these]

37. SEZ stands for ----

(a) Special Economic Zone (b) Special Export Zone (c) Socially Backward Zone (d) None

38. ------- is an Act to control and regulate the concentration of economic power to the commondetriment?

(a) IRDA Act (b) MRTP (c) ILO Act (d) FERA

39. Consumer Protection Act was came in to force-------

(a) 1985 (b) 1986 (c) 1999 (d) 1989

40. --------consist of economic conditions ,economic policies, industrial policies and economic system

(a) Business environment (b) Economic Environment (c) Natural Environment (d) None

41. Indian Economy is an example of ------

(a) Capitalist economy (b) Closed economy (c) Mixed Economy (d) None of these

42. ------- economy is not planned, controlled or regulated by the Govt.

(a)Closed Economy (b) Mixed Economy (c) Free market economy (d) None of these

43. --------is the main aim of economic planning in India?

(a)Economic Growth (b) Industrial expansion (c) Growth with social justice (d) N0ne

44. ------is the apex body of the economic planning in India?

(a) Planning Commission (b) Parliament (c) Supreme Court (d) None of these

45. TRYSEM was implemented during

(a) 2nd plan period (b) 5th plan period (c) 4th plan period (d) 7th Plan period

46. In the PEST frame work for environmental analysis, what does the letter E stands for

(a) Ethical (b) Economic (c) Educational (d) Ecological

47. Analysing process of change in the Business environment involves conceptualizing it as

(a) Diverse (b) Complex (c) Dynamic (d) Static

48. Who was forced to step-down as Chief Executive after describing one of his Company’s products

As ‘total crap’?

(a) Gerald ratner (b) Bill Gates (c) Alan sugar (d) None of these

49. In which year was the National Minimum wage introduced in the UK

(a) 1995 (b) 1999 (c) 1998 (d) 2000

50. The concept of a firms ‘license to operate’ refers to

(a) A legal requirement for company registration

(b) An agreement recognizing trade unions

© The need for a firm to retain its legitimacy in the eyes of the public

(d) The qualifications needed by company directors

51. What does the term ‘third sector’ refers to

(a) The voluntary sector (b) The service sector

(c ) The high technology industries (d) None of these

52. A multinational Corporation is defined as

(a) Having a multi ethnic work force

(b) Having suppliers in more than one country.

© Carrying out production in more than one country.

(d) None of the above

53. Which type of organizational structure is characterized by department s dealing with specialized task

(a) Matrix (b) Divisional (c) Hierarchical (d) Functional

54. The demand curve for a product will shift outwards to the right when

(a) The price of a substitute good rise (b) Consumer income fall

(c ) Consumer expect the price of the good fall in the future.

(d) The price of the product itself fall

55. If the demand for good is relatively price inelastic and its price rises, the revenue will

(a) fall (b) remain constant (c) rise (d) Depends on how supply responds

56. Which of the following option is not an example of ‘market failure’?

(a) Failure to produce merit goods (b) Failure to produce public goods

(c ) Failure of a firm to maximize its profits(d) Failure to account externalities

57. Which of the following is an example of a Primary form of Business activity?

(a) Hair dressing (b) Automobile production (c ) Banking (d) Forestry

58. The price of a goods will tend to rise if

(a) The current price is above the equilibrium

(b) The current price is below the equilibrium

(c ) The quantity demanded is less than the quantity supplied

(d) There is a reduction in the cost of a substitute commodity

59. Productivity is measured by

(a) The growth on Output of a firm (b) The growth on Profit of a firm

(c ) Total output/Total input (d) Total amount of investments in capital goods

60. The transfer of asset from public sector to the Private sector is referred to as

(a) Privatisation (b) De regulation (c ) Nationalisation (d) Individualisation

61. The Branch of Govt. that is responsible for implementing or carrying out law and policy is referred

(a) The legislature (b) The executive (c ) The Judiciary (d) The bureaucracy

62. A Sub culture may be defined as

(a) A Criminal culture (b) An inferior culture

(c ) A culture that is shared by a particular group with in the society

(d) A cultural practice that is submerged or hidden

63. The main objectives of macroeconomic policy is

(a) A high and stable level of employment (b) A low and stable rate of inflation

(c ) A stable and satisfactory rate of economic growth (d) All of the above

64. Who was first argued that the purpose of business was to make profit?

(a) Milton fried man (b) Margara thcher (c ) Elaine stembnerg (d) John Crane

65. How many headings are there in AVIVA’s Group Corporate social responsibility policy?

(a) 4 (b ) 8 (c ) 24 (d) 6

66. CSR is

(a)The same as business ethics. (b) A theory about ethics

© The integration of social and environmental concern in the daily business of the firm

(d) The title of a Govt. Committee

67. What was the focus of the Nike case?

(a) The quality of the sports foot wear (b)The control of branding

(c ) Monitoring the conditions and rights of those involved in the supply chain

(d) The ethics of sponsor ship

68. The globally responsible leadership Initiative (GRLI) was partly founded by

(a) Enron (b) The UN global compact (c) The WHO (d) Robert Maxwell

69. What is triple bottom line audit?

(a) A social, economic and environmental audit

(b) An audit of the three major financial project of a business.

(c ) An audit by the Physical Health of Employees

(d) An audit of all the Sporting resources of the enterprise.

70. What does the PPP or P3 initiative refer to?

(a) Public policy papers (b) Public Private Partnership

(c ) Private Procurement Production (d) Personal Production Proposal

71. What does the PFI initiative refer to ?

(a)Private Finance Initiative (b) Private Fiscal Initiative

(c ) Public Financial Initiative (d ) Private Foundation Investment

72. The term ‘late industrialization’ refers to

(a) The need to delay industrialization because of its threats to the environment

(b) The problem faced by many developing countries as they seek to catch up to the

Levels of development of richer countries

(c ) The belief that it is too late for many countries to industrialise.

(d ) That we are how entering a post industrialized world.

73. Which of the following economists is regarded as having developed the theory of comparative

Advantage?

(a) Adam Smith (b) David Rechardo (c ) Joseph stiglits (d) Amartya Sen

74 Globalisation refers to

(a) A more integrated and interdependent world(b) Lower income world wide

(c ) Less foreign trade and investment (d) Global warming

75. Which one of the following is a pull factor in emigration?

(a) Political oppression (b) Job Opportunities

(c ) Food shortage (d) War

76. Which of the following do not facilitate globalization

(a) Improvements in communication (b) Barriers to trade and investment

(c ) immigration control (d) Removal of control on movements of capital across borders.

77. Which of the following is not a deriver of globalization?

(a) The fragmentation of consumer taste between countries

(b) The competitive process (c ) The need to gain economies of scale (d) None of these

78. Globalisation is beneficial for firms because

(a) It protects them against foreign competition

(b) It cushions them from the effects of events in other countries.

(c ) It opens up new market opportunities

(d) It increases the risk and uncertainty of operating in globalizing world economy.

79. Globalisatiion can create problem for business because

(a)It can result in more competition

(b) It increases vulnerability to political risk and uncertainty when operating abroad

(c ) It means that they can increase price

(d ) All the options are correct.

80. An environment which is increasingly complex and turbulent displays

(a) More orderly competition (b)More predictable demand

(c) A reduced risk of product obsolescence. (d) Increased speed of innovation

81. Which of the following is not a business opportunity generated by globalization?

(a) Access to low cost labour (b) Cheap international transport

(c ) Currency crisis (d) Less stringent regulations of the Business Environment

82. Exploring the strategic implications of global warming is best described as -------

(a) An external environment analysis (b) Scenario planning

(c ) Futures forecasting (d ) A PESTLE analysis

83. PESTLE is an analytical tool which helps to under take?

(a) An internal analysis (b ) An external analysis

(c )A competitor analysis (d)A strategic analysis

84. An analysis of the external environment enables a firm to identify

(a) Strengths and opportunities (b) Strength and weakness

(c ) Weakness and threats (d) Opportunities and threats

85. To determine a country’s attractiveness to business require

(a) A detailed analysis of elements in the macro environment

(b) An assessment of the political and financial risks of doing business in that country

(c ) An analysis of the competitive environment

(d) All of the above

86. Secondary screening involves

(a) An external environmental analysis (b) Risk analysis

(c ) An external environment analysis and risk analysis

(d) A competitor analysis

87. The home locations of most of the World’s large Multi National Companies is

(a) North America and Europe (b) North America and Asia

(c ) Europe and South America (d) Europe and Asia

88. Multinational Corporations

(a) Always produce primary goods (b) Always produce manufactured goods

(c ) Always produce service (d) May produce primary or manufactured goods

89. ---------refers to highly educated and skilled people who migrate from poor developing countries

To wealthy industrial countries .

(a)Direct investment (b) Portfolio Investment (c ) Brain drain (d) Transfer Pricing

90.An attribute that doesn’t contribute to Porters Diamond model is

(a) Government (b) Organised Trade Unions (c ) Demand conditions (d) Factor conditions

91. Identify a factor that doesn’t play an important role in attracting FDI

(a)Laws, rules and regulations (b) Language

(c ) Cost of resources (d) Administrative Procedure and efficiency

92. The Country that attract the largest FDI inflow is –

(a) India (b) USA (c ) China (d) Brazil

93. General Electric follows ------ as its international operational strategy?

(a)Global (b) International (c ) Transnational (d ) None of these

94. Which bank is called the Bank of Issue

(a) RBI (b) SBI (c ) IDBI (d) ICICI

95. Theoretically, what is the most significant organ of WTO

(a) The council for Trade in Goods

(b) The ministerial conference

(c ) The General Council (d) The committee on Trade and Development

96. Where is provision made with regard to the WTO’s institutional arrangements?

(a) In the GAAT (b) In the WTO agreement

(c ) In the UN Charter (d) None of these

97. What is the role of IMF

(a) It control the budgets of National Govts

(b) It acts as a forum for international economics

(c ) It observes world exchange rated, balance of payments and multilateral payments

(d) None of these

98.The Sale of Sub standard and hazardous goods under defined conditions constitute

(a) Restrictive Trade Practice (b) Unfair Trade Practice

(c) MRTP (d) None of these

99.. The Bretton wood twins consist s of IMF and ---------

(a) World Bank (b ) ADB (c ) IDBI (d) ICICI

100.IMF commenced its operation in the year

(a) 1948 (b) 1950 (c ) 1947 (d) 1952

101. The number of institutions included in the world Bank Group is

(a) 5 (b) 4 (c )9 (d) 7

102. If a member has less currency with IMF than its quota, the difference is called ------

(a) Reserve (b ) Margin (c ) Reserve tranche (d ) None of these

103. As per 2006 estimates, India’s debt from IMF stands-------

(a) 150 billion dollars (b) 190 Billion dollars (c ) 250 Billion dollars (d) 138 Billion dollars

104. When India became the member of IMF, the initial par value of Indian rupee was fixed at ----- grams of

Gold.

(a) 0.26801. (b) 0.364 (c ) 0.359 (d)0.865

105.----- was the International reserve created by IMF to solve the problem of international liquidity

(a) SDR (b ) APR (c ) SDC (d) None of these

106. How many currencies are linked with SDR?

(a) 9 (b) 7 (c ) 6 (d) 5

107. ---------refers to the external forces which have a beating on the functioning of the business.

(a) Environment (b) Culture (c ) System (d) None of these

108. These are forces in the company’s immediate environment that affect the performance of the Co.

(a) Macro environment (b) Micro environment

(c )Technological environment (d) Natural environment

109. In this type of economic system, the Govt. intervention will be absent.

(a) Free enterprise economy, (b) Socialist economy (d) Mixed economy (d) None

110.--------is an economic system where the means of production are owned and managed by the State

(a) Capitalism (b) Socialism (c ) Mixed Economy (d) Common economy

111. India follows --------economic system

(a) Social (b ) Capitalist (c ) Mixed (d) None of these.

112. In ------economic system, there exists both private and public sector?

(a) (a) Social (b ) Capitalist (c ) Mixed (d) None of these.

113. Who was the first chairman of the Planning Commission of India?

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Rajendraprsad (c ) Gandhiji (d)Ambedkar

114. Who is concerned with the approval of the planning decision formulated by the Planning Commision

(a) NDC (b) (b) CDC (c ) Planning Board (d) None of these

115.When was the first industrial policy of India announced?

(a)April 6 1948 (b) April 9 1948 (c) March 6 1948 (d) April 1947

116.Who announced the Industrial policy of India for the first time?

(a) Gandhiji (b) Nehru (c ) Ambedkar (d) Subhash Chandra bose.

117. The industrial policy resolution of 1948 aimed at acceleration of ----- of the Country.

(a) Agricultural development (b) Indl development (c) Infrastructural development

(d) None of these

118. The Industrial policy of 1948 divided the Indian industries in to -------------- catagories.

(a) 5 (b) 4 (c )8 (d) 6

119. Which Industrial Policy Resolution(IPR) is known as Economic Constitution of India?

(a) IPR 1964 (b)IPR 1976 (c ) IPR 1956 (d) IPR 1948

120. Which govt. announced the IP of 1980?

(a) Congress (b) Janatha (c ) BJP (d) UPA

121. Which IP abolished the Industrial licensing?

(a) IPR 1956 (b) IPR 1964 (c ) IP 1991 (d) None of these

122. The agricultural income is fully exempted from Income tax—Is it true?

(a) False (b) Not Applicable (c ) True (d) Partially taxable

123. There are policies which are made to govern the import and export trade

(a) Export policies (b) Import Policies (c ) EXIM policies (d) None of these

124. The Govt. introduced the import liberalization policy in the year-----

(a) 1977- 78 (b) 1991-92 (c) 1988-89 (d) 2001-02

125. When was the EXIM policy announced for the first time?

(a) 1947 (b) 1985 (c ) 1991 (d) 1999

126. EPZ stands for -----

(a) Export Processing Zone (b) Export Promotion Zone (c) External Promotion zone

(d) None of these.

127. ---------concerned with the obligation and duties of business to the society?

(a) Social responsibility (b)Status (c ) Authority (d) None of these

128.Who conducted the social audit in India for the first time?

(a) JRD Tata (b) Birla (c ) Reliance group (d)State Bank

129. -----------is a social movement seeking to augment the rights and powers of buyers?

(a) Consumer movement (b ) Consumerism (c ) Flows (d) None of these

130. In these types of NRI Accounts, the Principal as well as interest in non patriable ?

(a) NRNR A/c (b) NRO (c ) NRSR A/C (d) None of these

131. Which type of securities are bought and sold in open market operation?

(a) Pvt. Securities (b) Govt. securities (c ) Initial securities (d) None of these

132. ------ is the difference between market value of a security and the amount lent by banks against these

Securities?

(a) Margin o f safety (b ) Margin (c ) Loan amount (d) None of these.

133. The RB I introduced the credit authorization scheme in --------

(a) Nov 1965 (b ) Dec. 1968 (c ) 1948 (d) 1991

134. The term budget is derived from the French word --------

(a) Boget (b) Bougette (c ) Bogeget (d) None of these

135. The Union budget of the coming financial year presented to the parliament on --------

(a) Last working day of February (b ) First working day of February

(c ) March first week (d) Last working day of March

136. Who is concerned with the presentation of Union budget?

(a) Prime Minister (b) Finance Minister (c ) RBI Governor (d) Home Minister

137. Which Bill in concerned with the tax proposals of the Budget?

(a) Cash Bill (b) Finance Bill (c ) State Bill (d) None of these

138.The Union Budget is divided in to ---------parts

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c ) 8 (d) 5

139. Which item of the budget is concerned with the current expenditure of Govt. on administration ?

(a)Capital expenditure (b) Revenue expenditure (c ) Deferred expenditure (d) None

140. --------deals with the receipts from taxes, interest, dividend and profits

(a) Revenue receipts (b) Capital receipts (c ) general receipts (d) Deferred receipts

141.Introduction to business wrote by --------

(a) Reinck (b) Schoeil (c ) Coper (d) Both A& B

142. A good environment is good business. Who said this?

(a) Dr. MS Swaminathan (b) Dr. SS Rao (c ) Dr, M. Sing (d) Dr. R. Rajan

143. Which one of the following cannot be included under the nature of relationship between business

And Environment ?

(a) Inter dependence (b) Dynamic (c ) Social change (D) Fixed

144. External Environment of Business is ------

(a) Physical (b) Demographical (c ) Economic (d) All of these

145. Physical Environment includes-----

(a) Natural Resources (b) Climate (c ) Water (d) All of these

146. Natural Environment Includes-------------

(a) Water (b) Earth (c ) Air (d ) All of these

147. The Economic environment of a business includes?

(a) Economic system (b) Economic policies (c ) Economic conditions (d) All of these

148. Which of the following is not an essential feature of social environment?

(a) Competitiveness (b)Respect for the individual (c )Better quality of life(d) Bailment

149.The New economic policy of India is precious gift of

(a) Dr. VS Rao (b) Dr. Manmohan singh (c ) Mr. Jaswant Sing (d) Venkita Roy

150. Administrative contol contains ---

(a) Industrial Policy (b) Economic planning (c ) GNP (d) GDP

Environmental Studies 201-348

201. Boron, Zinc and Manganese are usually referred to as

a) Micro materials b) Macro materials

20

c) Soil Vitamins d) MBZ nutrients

202. The noise pollution is measured in terms of

a) decibel b) Dobson units

c) Hertz d) Candela

203. Incineration of Municipal waster involves

a) Oxidation b) Deduction

c) Redox action d) disintegration

204. The word Tsunami is derived from two Japanese words

a) tsu(big) and nami(flow) b) tsu(harbour) and nami(wave)

c) Tsu (big wave) and nami(wave) d) None of the above

205. The 3 R principle in waste management involves

a) Reduce, Regain, Reuse b) Reduce, Reuse, Recycle

c) Reduce, Reform, Reset d) Reduce, Retain, Regain

206. Which of the following is an extinct species

a) Tiger b) Lion

c) Dodo c) Ostrich

207. ‘Project Tiger’ was launched in the year

a) 1973 b) 1972

c) 1991 d) 1992

208 The famous Minamata disease in Japan is due to the accumulation

of in fishes

(a) Cadmium b) Mercury

( c ) Zinc d) Lead

209 The term ‘Ecology’ was coined by

a) A.G. Tansley b) Earnest Hackel

c) Aristotle d) Linnaeus

210 Nitrogen gas returns to the atmosphere by the action of

a) Nitrogen fixing bacteria b) Denitrifying bacteria

c) Nitrifying bacteria d) Nitrate fertilizers

21

211. Photosynthesis is found in

(a) Producers b) Decomposers

c) Consumers d) None of these

212. Phytoplankton is

(a) Producers of forest b) Producers of lakes

c) Consumers of Ocean d) Omnivores

213. The only ape found in India

(a) Gorilla b) Chimpanzee

c) Haddock gibbon d) Oranguttan,(answer Hoolok Gibbon)

214. Soil pollution is caused by

(a) Aerosol b) Ozone

c) Acid rain d) PAN

215. Green House Effect is caused by

a) Increase in Co2 b) Increase in O2

c) Decrease in O2 d) Decrease in Co2

216. Black Buck is a

a) Goat b) Deer

c) Butterfly d) Bird

217. Gharial is a

a) Crocodile b) Cobra

c) Tortoise d) Frog

218 Gas released during photosynthesis is

a) Methane b) Nitrogen

c) Oxygen d) Carbon dioxide

219 …………………is one of the most endangered species of Indian bird

a) Bee eater b) Paradise fly catcher

c) Owl d) The great Indian bustard

220. Environmental Protection Act was introduced in the year

a) 1986 b) 1988

c) 1972 d) 1989

22

221. Project Tiger was launched by Govt. of India in the year

a) 1972 b) 1978

c) 1973 d) 1983

222. Energy stored within earth is

a) Magma b) Geothermal

c) Tidal d) Ocean thermal

223. The most dangerous agent that leads to O3 layer depletion is

a) UV b) Halons

c) CFC d) All of the above

224. …………….. is the poisonous gas leaked during Bhopal gas tragedy

a) MIC b) PVC

c) Teflon d) Hydrogen Sulphide

225. Pangolins feed on

a) ants b) fruits

c) leaves d) roots

226. Who among the following is commonly called ‘Bird Man of India’

a) Salim Ali b) M.S. Swaminathan

c) M.C. Mehta d) Raphel Emerson

227. Ecology is

a) The science that studies the evolution of live

b) Integrates both social and natural sciences to help us

understand how the earth

works

c) The study of the relationships between organisms and their

environment

c) The study of the environment in the absence of humans

228. Ozone layer is present in

a) Troposphere b) Stratosphere

c) Mesosphere d) Ionosphere

229. The term ‘Nuclear winter’ is associated with

23

a. Nuclear War b. Nuclear disarmament

c. Nuclear weapon testingd. d.After effect of nuclear

230 Many wild plants and animals are on the verge of extinction due to

a. Deforestation b. Climatic changes

c. Non availability of food d. None of the above

231. Multilayered gaseous envelope surrounding the planet is

a. Ionosphere b. Hydrosphere

c. Lithosphere d. Atmosphere

232. The most endangered ecosystem in India

a. Shola forest ecosystem b. Evergreen forest ecosystem

c. Pond ecosystem d. None

233. Eravikulam National Park conserves

a. Lion tailed macaque b. Tiger

c. Elephant d. Nilgiri Tahr

234. First National Park in India

a. Jim Corbet National Park

b. Bandipur National Park

c. Gir National Park

d. Sunderbans National Park

235. Forest Research Institute is located at

a. Dehradun b. Delhi

c. Assam d. Peechi

236. Agastyamalai Biosphere reserve is in

a. Pathanamthitta b. Thiruvananthapuram

c. Idukki d. Wayanad

237. Rain water harvesting is a major method implemented for------------

a. Water Conservation b. Soil Conservation

c. Forest Conservation d. Ecological Conservation

238. Ozone Umbrella is located in which layer of atmosphere

a. Troposphere b. Stratosphere

c. Mesosphere d. Ionosphere

239. The phenomenon of accumulation of non-biodegradable pesticide in

human beings

a. Biomagnification b. Bioaccumulation

c. Biodegradation d. Bioremediation

240. The method of simultaneous integration of trees with agricultural

crops is called

a. Agro forestry b. Deforestation

c. Reforestation d. Combined culture

241. Example for a physical pollutant

a. Water b. Air

c. Radiation d. Plant

242. DDT is a ________________pollutant

a. Bio degradable b. Non bio degradable

c. Un-biodegradable d. Naturally degradable

243. An example of an abiotic component

a. Plants b. Soil

c. Animals d. Bacteria

244. The term ‘Eco’ implies

a. Enviornment b. Ecotone

c. Soil

245. The natural source of energy is__________________

a. Sun b. Stars

c. Electricity d. Lightening

246. Eutrophication results from

a. Agricultural and sewage water b. Vehicle exhaust

c. Pesticides d. Industrial effluent

247. The major reservoir of carbon is

a. The atmosphere b. Ocean led

c. Plant and animals c. Rock

248. The cause of Bhopal disaster is

a. Methyl Alcohol b. Methyl Carbonate

c. Methyl isocyanate d. Methyl Sulphate

249. Plants which grow in light are called

a. Sciophytes b. Heliophytes

b. Oxylophytes c. Epiphytes

25

250. Total water content of the soil is known as

a. Holard b. Chraserd

c. Echard d. All of the above

251. What is meant by root ozone process?

a. A control measure to prevent water pollution

b. A process by which roots of plants are spread on the ground

c. A control measure to prevent soil pollution

d. None of these

252. WWF-1 stands for

a. World wrestling Federation India

b. World wide Fund for Nature - India

c. World wide Finance for Nature – India

d. World wide Flora-India Chapter

253. Web of life is

a. A book written by Charles Dickens

b. Interlinked chain of food

c. Energy cycle

d. Carbon, Nitrogen and water cycles

254. Western India and Deccan plateau is famous for

a. Desert ecosystem b. Grassland ecosystem

c. Aquatic ecosystem c. Forest ecosystem

255. The simplest aquatic ecosystem can be seen in a

a. River b. Lake Pond

c. Water Tank

256. Fishes such as catfish which takes their food from the muddy bed of

the lakes.

a. Mud feeders b. Green feeders

c. Bottom feeders d. All the above

257. According to the philosophy of Mahatma Gandhi, Humans were

a. Masters of animals b. Trustees of animals

c. Trainees of animals d. All of the above

26

258. The constant purchasing of new goods without any concern of the true

need, durability, product origin or environmental on

sequences/disposal is called

a. Narcism b. Exhibitionism

c. Consumerism c. Marketism

259. The word Tsunami is derived from two Japanese words

a. tsu(big) and nami(flow)

b. tsu (harbour) and nami (wave)

c. tsu(big wave) and nami(name)

d. None of these

260. Salmonellas is a disease related to consumption of

a. Chcken b. Eggs

c. Mutton c. Fish

261. Every fifth child under the age of five in India dies due to Diarrhea.

The reason is

a. Inadequate purification of drinking water.

b. Malnutrition

c. Lack of medicine

d. Lack of hospital facilities.

262. What is UNCED?

a. United Nations Conference on Education.

b. United Nations Conference on Environmental Day

c. United Nations Conference on Environment and Development

d. None of these

263. What ex-situ conservation

a. Conservation of a species by protecting its habitat along with all

other species living there.

b. Conservation of forest eco system

c. Conservation of a species outside its natural habitat

d. Conservation of plants.

264. One third of the global cases of Tuberculosis is in

a. Britain b. Sweden

c. India c. China

265. Causative organisms of Malaria

a. Bacteria b. Fungus

d. Parasitic Organism Plasmodium c. Virus

266. What is “Black Lung”?

a. Occupational Hazard to the miners

b. Occupational Hazard to navigators

c. Occupational Hazard to pesticide applicators.

267. What is fly-ash?

a. Waste from nuclear power station

b. Waste produced by thermal power stations that use coal

c. Waste from house hold

268. Exxon Valdez?

a. Oil Tanker sank in 1989 along the coast of Alaska and marine life

seriously affected.

b. A plane which crashed and caused death of human life.

c. A ship which wrecked on the coast of India

d. None of these.

269. Pedology?

a. Study of water b. Study of air

b. Study of soil c. None

270. What is hard water?

a. Water in ponds b. Polluted water

c. Water containing salts of Ca and Mg d. Water in rivers

271. What is hibernation and aestivation?

a. Thermal adaptation shown by animals

b. wind adaptation shown by animals

c. adaptation of animals to escape from predators.

d. none

272. What is symbiosis ?

a. Study of distribution of related species

b. Association between members of same species

c. Association between members of two species

d. None

273. What is edge species?

a. The species which occur abundantly in the ecotone

b. Species on the verge of extinction

c. Rare species

274. What is lentic habitat

a. Running water habitat b. Standing or still water habitat

c. Marine habitat d. None

275. What is lotic habitat ?

a. Standing or still water habit b. Marine habitat

c. Running water habitat d. None

276. What is Plankton?

a. Microscopic floating organisms – Plants and animals.

b. bottom dwelling aquatic organisms

c. large plants in water

d. none

277 What is Canopy?

a. Uppermost level of the forest. b. Ground level of the forest

c. Soil in forest d. None

278. What is Carcinogen?

a. Drugs for curing infectious disease b. Drugs used for curing

cancer

c. Cancer causing agent d. None

279. Largest preventable cause of cancer

a. Tobacco smoking and chewing b. Meat consumption

b. Egg consumption d. Alcohol consumption

280. The deadliest Tsunami in recorded history took place on

a. 26-Dec-2004 b. 26-Dec-2000

c. 15-Nov-1990 d. 15-Dec-1999

281. Centre of Modern nuclear technology in India

a. CRAS b. SARC

c. BARC d. None of these

282. Mullaperiyar dam is in the district?

a. Thrissur b. Pathanamthitta

c. Idukki c. Alappuzha

283. What is Bagasse? What is it used for?

a. Sugar cane waste – to make paper b. Biogas – used as

fuel

c. Liquid waste – as fertilizer d. Vermi compost – as

fertilizer

284. What is deep ecology?

a. Protecting nature for its own sake b. Ecology of deep sea

c. Ecology of forest d. None of these

285. Tajmahal is threatened by atmospheric pollution from

a. Kaigo b. Matura Refinery

c. Bokaro Steel Plant c. BARC

286. What is an Incinerator?

a. Furnace used for burning solid waste

b. Furnace used for treating liquid waste

c. Both a & b d. None

287. The inherent ability of organisms to reproduce and multiply is called

a. repetition b. biotic potential

c. carrying capacity c. None

288. Birth rate is called

a. Mortality b. Vital index

c. Natality d. None

289. The rapid explosive booming of mankind is known as

a. Population Density b. Population decrease

c. Population explosion c. None

290. Which of the following is a non-degradable pollutant?

a. DDT b. Sewage

c. Carbonates d. None

291. Photochemical smog is called

a. Tokyo smog b. London smog

c. Los Angels smog d. None

292. The combustion of waste in the absence of Oxygen is called

a. Haemolysis b. Pyrolysis

c. Hydrolysis d. None

293. What is NIHL?

a. Noise induced hearing loss b. Water pollution

c. Air pollution c. None

294. What is deforestation?

a. Product of forest b. destruction of forest

c. Forest protection c. None

295. Killing of animals disturbs

a. Good for eco system b. Good for man

c. The balance of nature d. None

296. Deforestation generally decreases

a. Global Warming b. Drought

c. Soil erosion d. Rainfall

297. What is meant by Oceanography?

a. A study of marine habitat b. Study of fresh water

c. Study of soil c. None.

298. North American grassland are called

a. Pampas b. Prairies

c. Savannah c. None

299. African grassland are called

a. Prairies b. Pampas

c. Savannah d. None

300. Green plants are absent in deep sea. Why?

a. Light is absent b. High pressure

c. Low temperature d. Great depth

301. What is desertification?

a. Conversion of forest into desert.

b. Conversion of cropland into desert.

c. Conversion of grassland into desert

d. None

302. Infection of HIV is usually detected by which test

a. Elisa test b. Hybridization

c. Gram staining c. None

303. Name the example of nitrogen fixers in the soil

a. Rhizobium b. Nostac

c. Azotobacter d. None

304. The state which constituted green bench

a. Kerala b. Tamilnadu

c. Assam c. Madhya Pradesh

305. Silent Valley was proclaimed as a National Park in the year

a. 1975 b. 1990

c. 1984 d. 1980

306. The first global environmental protection treaty “The Montreal

Protocol” was signed on Sept. 26.

a. 1985 b. 1990

c. 1981 d. 1987

307. “Earth provides enough to satisfy every man’s need, but not for every

man’s greed” words by

a. Tagore b. Gandhiji

c. Nehru c. None

308. The organism which spend their whole life as parasites are called

a. Permanent parasite b. Temporary parasite

c. Facultative parasite d. None

309. The basic unit of biosphere is

a. Biome b. Biotope

c. Medium d. None

310. The excessive green effect is referred to as

a. Acid rain b. Global warming

c. Air pollution c. None

311. Use and disuse theory proposed by…………………………………

a. Lamark b. Stebbins

c. Darwin d. Dobzhansky

312. Name the endangered animal which is protected in Rajamalai National

Park

a. Chital b. Black buck

c. Nilgiri Tahr d. None

313. The heating of earth’s atmosphere due to trapped radiation is known as

a. Global warming b. Glass-House effect

c. Thermal effect d. Green house effect

314. Ozone hole was first observed on

a. Antartica b. Africa

c. America d. Australia

315. Heating of atmosphere by radiation accelerate the process of

a. Condensation b. Rain formation

c. Precipitation d. Evaporation

316. Which among the following result in the formation of soil?

a. Radiation b. Weathering

c. Erosion d. Pollution

317. Animals and plants are best protected in

a. Zoos b. Botanical Gardens

c. National Parks d. Sanctuaries

318. The first tropic level in a food chain

a. Green Plants b. Herbivores

c. Carnivores d. Bacteria

319. Sulphur bacteria are examples of

a. Carnivores b. Heterotrophs

c. Saprophytes d. Autotrophs

320. The chief chemical element in the biosphere

a. Oxygen b. Nitrogen

c. Hydrogen d. Carbon

321. Growing of trees in a large scale is known as

a. Afforestation b. Deforestation

c. Agroforestry c. Forest Conservation

322. The water conflict between Kerala and Tamilnadus associated with

a. Sabarigiri b. Kuttiyadi

c. Mullapriyar d. Alliyar

323. The category to which majority of forest in Kerala belongs to

a. Wet Evergreen b. Rain Forest

c. Deciduous Forest d. Tropical Evergreen

324. Thickness of plastic cover permissible to use

a. 50 Microns b. 20 Microns

c. 100 Microns d. 10 Microns

325. A biodegradable plastic developed by Biopak Corporation Australia

a. Biopol b. Pet

c. Polyester d. PVC

326. Which can be an e-waste

a. Plastic b. Paper

c. Industrial effluent d. Mobile Phone

327. Death rate of the population

a. Mortality b. Viability

c. Natality d. Vitality

328. Sedimentary biogeochemical cycle

a. Oxygen cycle b. Nitrogen cycle

c. Water cycle d. Phosphorus cycle

329. Nitrogen fixing blue green alga

a. Clostridium b. Rhizobium

c. Nostoc d. Nitrosomonas

330. Green Land biome

a. Thundra b. Pampas

c. Taiga d. Thaar

331. Example for a bio-degradable polymer is

a. Polyethylene b. Polypropylene

c. Poly lactic acid d. Polyester

332. Rain during November is more acidic than monsoon rain due to

a. Dissolved CO2 b. Dissolved SO2

c. Dissolved NO2 d. None of the above

333. Blue baby syndrome is caused by

a. Nitrites b. Sulphates

c. Carbonates d. Nitrates

334. What is Dentrology?

a. Study of Plants b. Study of Butterflies

c. Study of Trees d. None of these

335. World first Teak Forest was planted in 1842 in Kerala. Identify the place

a. Wayanad b. Nilambur

c. Silent Valley d. Nelliyampathy

336. The Native place of Redwood trees?

a. Australia b. Amazon

c. California d. Thailand

337. The Residential and Commercial wastes mainly consist of

a. Food wastes b. Card board

c. Packaging materials d. None of the above, (answer is all of the above)

338. When number of food chains are interlocked this is called

a. food link b. food chain

c. food web d. pyramid

339. Mulching helps in

a. soil fertility b. Moisture conservation

c. improvements soil structured. soil sterility

340. Atmospheric humidity is measured by

a. Auxanometer b. Photometer

c. Hygrometer d. None.

341. One day cycle is

a. carbon dioxide cycle b. water cycle

c. energy cycle d. oxygen cycle

342. Periyar sanctuary is famous for

a. Elephants b. Wild buffaloes

c. Wild bears d. Swamp deer

343. Lead in water can cause

a. eye disease b. arthritis

c. kidney damage d. hair falling

344. Colorless odorless and non corrosive air pollutant is

a. Sulphur dioxide b. Carbon monoxide

c. Carbon dioxide d. Ozone

345. Disease aggravated by air pollution is

a. Cholera b. Rheumatism

c. Bronchitis c. Haemophilia

346. The loss of species in tropical countries is mainly due to

a. pollution b. soil erosion

d. deforestation d. urbanization

347. Which of the following type of pollution can cause the out break of

Jaundice?

a. Air b. Thermal

c. Water d. Land

348. BOD stands for

a. Biological Oxygen Decrease b. Biotic Oxygen Demand

c. Biological Oxygen Demand d. None of the above.

The End, Thanks for all..........

Business Practice 200-500

201. Which of the following is a public sector unit?

(a)TCS (b)TESCO

(c)ICICI Bank (d)BHEL

202.IDBI serves as the …….institution for term finance to industries.

(a)APEX (b) IIT

(c)IIM (d) CAT

203.The Scope of audit in a partnership firm is governed by

(a)Partnership Act (b)Partnership deed

(c)Agreement between partnership firm and auditor

(d)Number of partners of the firm

204.Apublic company which has not issued a prospectus file statement in lieu of prospectus with

the

Registrar, at least …………….before the first allocation of shares.

(a)3 days (b)15 days

(c)21 days (d)30 days

205.The power to capitalize profits or reserves has been vested by section…………….of the

Companies

Act, in the company

(a)205(1) (b) 205(2)

(c) 205(3) (d) 205(4)

206.Section of the Companies Act.1956 deals with transfer of shares and debentures.

(a)105 (b) 106

(c) 107 (d) 108

207.Which of the following statements about of lading is not correct?

(a)It is a document of title to the goods

(b) It is not a negotiable instrument like cheque.

(c)It is not transferable by endorsement &delivery

(d) None of these

208.Which of the following insurance contracts are not contracts of indemnity?

(a)Life Insurance (b)Personal Accident insurance

(c)Sickness insurance (d) All of the above

209.The doctrine of contribution does not apply to:

(a)Fire insurance (b) Accident insurance

(c) Life Insurance (d) Both (b) and(c)

210.Dow and Jones, now popularly known as ‘Dow-Jones’ in the stock market parlance were the

(a)First financial journalist

(b) First bull operators in the New York Stock exchange

(c) First to predict the Great Depression

(d) Both (a) and(c)

211. The primary function of stock exchange is to

(a)Mobilize saving from the public for long-term investment

(b) Offer a secondary market for shares and other securities

(c) Facilitate barter deals between buyer and seller holding different securities

(d) Enable RBI to trade in government securities

212.Which of the following statements about reinsurance is correct?

(a)It is an agreement between two or more insurance companies by which the risk of

. loss is proportioned

(b)It is a contract between insurance companies and does not affect the party insured

(c)The original insurer is called the reinsured and the subsequent insurers the

reinsurer

(d)All of the above

213.Export Credit and Guarantee Corporation Ltd. was set up in

a)January 1964 (b)October 1963

(c)April 1963 (d)December 1964

214. Mineral and Metals Trading Corporation of India Ltd started functioning from

(a)January 5,1964 (b)October 1, 1963

(c)April 2 1963 (d)November30, 1964

215. The State Trading Corporation(STC) . was set up on

a)May 18, 1956 (b) May 28, 1958

(c)April 30,1955 (d) April 16,1948

216.The’ National Development Council Committees on Backward Areas’ was constituted in

September.

(a)1963 (b)1964

(c) 1968 (d) 1969

217. Minimum Alternate Tax(MAT) is applicable to

(a)Joint stock company (b)Co-operative society

(c) Partnership firm (d) Sole proprietary concern

218.Non-registration of a partnership does not affect

(a)The right of a partner to sue the firm.

(b) The right of a partner to sue third parties

(c) The right of a third party to proceed against the firm or its partners

(d) None of these

219.If a minor chooses to continue as a partner attaining the age of majority, he will be liable to the

debts of the firm from the date of his.

(a)Attaining majority

(b) Admission to profits of the firm.

(c) Choosing to become a partner at a subsequent date.

(d) Guardian giving the option

220.The liability of the Karta in a Joint Hindu Family

(a)Limited to his interest in the HUF

(b) Unlimited

(c) Limited to the entire property of the family.

(d) Limited to the private properties of all the members.

221.Which of the following is not an advantage of the incorporation of a company?

(a)Perpetual succession

(b)Limited liability of members.

(c).Capital contributions forming part of Joint Stock of the company

(d) Freedom to do any business.

222.Equal voting rights and Open membership are the features of..

(a)Joint stock company (b)Co-operative society

(c) Partnership firm (d) Sole proprietary concern

223. Which of the following is not distinctive features of the co-operative form of business

organization?

(a)Service motive (b)Democratic management

(c).cash trading (d) one-share one- vote system.

224. As per SEBIs guidelines underwriting is

(a)Mandatory (b)Not mandatory

(c).Necessary (d) Not optional

225. As per SEBIs guidelines rights issued should not be kept open for more than

. (a)30 days (b)45 days

(c)60 days (d) 75 days

226.The minute book has to be written within……….of the conclusion of the meeting?

(a)14 days (b)45 days

(c)30 days (d) 46 days

227.The first chairman of the company is generally.

(a)Elected by the Board of directors (b)Elected by the members

(c)Named in the Articles (d) Named in the Memorandum

228. Who may be appointed as a director of a company.

(a)An individual (b) A body corporate

(c)A firm (d)An association

229. The gap between two annual general meeting may be extended to-----by the Registrar.

(a)Fifteen months (b) Eighteen months

(c)Twenty months (d)Twenty one months

230.The concept of social audit was first developed by………….in USA.in the fifties

(a)Howard R.Bowen (b) D.H Fenn

(c)R.A .Bauer (d)John J.Corson

231.When the L.I.C was nationalized, an initial capital Rs 50 crore was provided by the

(a)R.B.I (b) Government of India

(c)State Bank of India (d)IDBI

232. Foreign borrowers raise money in International Capital Markets through issue of

(a)Euro-bonds (b) GDR

(c)ADR (d)FDR

233. Which of the following is constitute the general nature of equity shares?

(a)The risk factor (b) The income factor

(c)The control factor (d)All of the above

234.Indian Institute of Sugar Technology is located at

(a)Kanpur (b)Shillong

(c)Mussoorie (d)Ahamedabad

235.The ISMA(Indian Sugar Mills Association)established in 1933 refers to a

(a)Partial Consolidation (b) Holding company

(c)Trade association (d)Chamber of commerce

236.The MRTP Acts applies to

(a) Co-operative societies (b) Government undertaking

(c)Private sector undertaking (d)All of the above

237.Rationalisation may be achieved through

(a) Market relations (b) creation of monopolies

(c)Standardization of products (d)All of the above

238.A pool is a form of………………combination

(a)Vertical (b) Horizontal

(c)Circular (d)Lateral

239.The maximum numbers of members of the MRTPC is

a)7 (b)9

(c)8 (d)10

240. The minimum number of members of the MRTPC is

a)3 (b)2

(c)1 (d)4

241.A Monopolistic undertaking controls not less than……………share of production and sales?

a)One half (b)One fourth

(c)One fifth (d)None of these

242.With effect for which year did the MRTP Act come in to force?

(a)1956 (b)1975

(c)1970 (d)1980

243.’Interest Rate Policy’ is a component of

(a)Fiscal policy (b) Monetary policy

(c)Trade policy (d)Direct control

244.Name the country’s third largest private sector lender which has been officially changed to the

Axis

Bank Ltd.

(a)Lord Krishna Bank(b) HDFC Bank

(c)Centurion Bank (d)U.T.I. Bank

245.Which of the following has said that India will become third largest economy of the world after

China and US by 2025.

(a)A.D.B (b) World Bank

(c) United Nations (d)I.M.F

246. Which of the following companies has emerged as the largest tax payer of the country .

(a)Aditya Birla Group (b) Reliance Industries

(c) Hero Honda (d)Tata Group

247.Which is the expanded form of ‘MICR’?

(a)Magnetic Ink Character Reader (b) Magnetic Ink Code Reader

(c) Magnetic Inline Character Reader (d) Magnetic Inline Code Reader

248.Principle of specialization requires.

(a)Division of labour (b) Centralization of work

(c) Decentralization of work (d) Generalization of work

249.Division of work leads to………………………………

(a) Centralization (b) Centralization

(c) specialization (d) Generalization

250.Owners capital decreased by ………………………

(a)Revenue (b) Profit

(c) Expenses (d) Loss

251. The R.B.I issues coins and notes of various denominations. At present R.B.I does not issue

coins of

which of the following denominations?

(a)10 paisa (b) 25 paisa

(c) 1.00 Rupee (d) 50 Paisa

252.The European Union has adopted which of the following as a common currency ?

(a)Dollar (b) Euro

(c) Yen (d)Dinar

253. Which of the following name is not associated with the insurance business in India ?

(a)Bajaj Alliance (b) GIC

(c) L.I.C (d)GE Money

254.Many a time we see a term in newspapers ‘IPO’. What is the full form of the same?

(a)Indian Public Offer (b) Initial Public Offer

(c)Industrial Purchase Order (d)Indian Purchase Order

255.Which of the following organizations/bank has done a commendable work in the field of

microfinance and was awarded Nobel prize also in the past?

(a)Gramin Bank of Bangladesh (b)NABARD

(c)CRY (d)ASHA

256.Which of the following countries represents letter ‘C’ in the category known as BRIC countries

(a)Canada (b) Cuba

(c)China (d)Chile

257. Which of the following is a type of tax levied by the Government on goods and services?

(a)SAT (b)PAN

(c)NET (d)VAT

258.Italy has offered its help in developing ‘SMEs’ in India. What is the full form of ‘SME’?

(a)Small and Monopolistic Economy (b)Small and Medium Enterprises

(c) Small and Medium level Economy (d) None of these.

259.What is an ECO-MARK ?

(a)A Scheme for labeling pollution-free industrial Unit

(b) A Scheme for labeling environment friendly consumer products

(c) A cost effective production technique.

(d)An international certification recognizing eco-friendly building

260. Which of the following is the oldest board under the Department of Commerce?

(a)The Rubber Board (b) The Tea Board

(c) The Coffee Board (d) The Tobacco Board

261. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a)Fiat: Italy (b) Nissan: Japan

(c) Toyota: Japan (d) Hyundai: Germany

262.The Headquarters of World Bank is situated at

(a)Manila (b) Washington D.C

(c) Geneva (d) New York

263.The Headquarters of SAARC is situated at

(a)Dhaka (b) Kathmandu

(c)New Delhi (d) Karachi

264.Which of the following item is a major item of Indian export?

(a)Computer chips (b) Potato chips

(c)Textile garments (d) Car engines

265. Which of the following pair of goods are close substitutes?

(a)Milk and sugar (b) Sugar and Tea

(c)Tea and Coffee (d) Coffee and Biscuits

266.Long-term funds in the capital market can be raised either by borrowing from certain

institutions or

through.

(a)Issue of note (b) taking loan from Government

(c)issue of securities (d) taking loan from foreign institutions

267.The world’s largest producer of mica is

(a)USA (b) UK

(c)Canada (d) India

268.Which of the following countries has highest percentage of land under cultivation ?

(a)India (b) USA

(c)China (d) Canada

269.The ratio of pure gold in 18 carat gold is

(a)60% (b)75% (c)80% (d)90%

270.As per existing laws maximum how much area is allowed to be acquired for a ‘SEZ’?

(a)1000 hectares (b) 2000 hectares

(c) 3000 hectares (d) None of these.

271.Las Vegas ,US-based tour operator AMX Company has filed a trademark patent for which of

the

following Taglines ?

(a) “God’s Own Country” (b) “Heaven on Earth”

(c) “Discover Incredible India” (d) “Come Alive with India”

272.Trade Related Intellectual Property Rights(TRIP) is part of

(a)Simla agreement

(b)Rights guaranteed in the constitution of India

(c)SAARC agenda

(d)GATT agenda

273.A dividend is paid only on

(a)Common stock (b) Common or preferred

(c)Bonds (d) None of these

274.Chairman of the Unique Identification Authority of India

(a)Nandan Nilekani (b) G.Gopalakrishnan

(c)V.R.Krishna Iyer (d) None of these

275.Indian city with highest level of pollution at present

(a)Mumbai (b) Kanpur

(c)Delhi (d) Cochin

276.Which one of the following is an odd one out?

(a)SBI (b) CIA

(c) ISI (d)FBI

277.The year in which the nationalization of banks took place

(a)1968 (b) 1969

(c)1970 (d)1971

278. “Pure Banking, Nothing Else” is a slogan raised by

(a) SBI (b) ICICI Bank

(c) HDFC Bank (d) EXIM Bank

279.Bank rate in India is determined by

(a)Commercial Bank (b)NABARD

(c)Cooperative Bank (d)RBI

280.Telecom company ‘Nokia’ belongs to which country ?

(a) Japan (b) USA

(c)China (d) Finland

281.Which of the following is a Credit Rating Agency functioning for the financial sector in India ?

(a) VISA (b) NEFT

(c)BOISL (d) ICRA

282. Which of the following cannot be called a rubber producing state?

(a)Karnataka (b)Tamil Nadu

(c)Kerala (d) Uttar Pradesh

283. Which of the following owns the ‘Easy Day’ retail stores

(a)Reliance Retail (b) Wal-Mart

(c)Bharti Retail (d) Birla Retail

284. ‘Big Bazaar’ chain of stores is run by which group?

(a)Reliance Group (b) Jindal Group

(c)Future Group (d) Birla Group

285. Which of the following countries is not a part of G-8 Group of countries?

(a) Japan (b) Germany

(c)China (d) Britain

286. Which of the following indexes is developed to measure life expectancy, level of literacy,

education

and standard of living of people in a country ?

(a) Human Development Index (b) Sensex

(c)Inflation (d)SLR

287.The first Five Year Plan in India was launched in the year

(a) 1951 (b) 1947

(c)1948 (d)1957

288. The Headquarters of State Bank of India is located in

(a) Kolkata (c)Pune

(b) New Delhi (d)None of these

289. Which of the following committees recommended the revival of Cooperative Credit

Institutions in

states?

(a) Vaidyanathan Committee (b)Rangarajan Committee

(c)Sachchar Committee (d)Rajkesh Mohan Committee

290. International Labour Organization is located at

(a)Manila (b) Paris

(c) Geneva (d) New York

291.The highest body which approves the five-year plan in India is the

(a)Planning Commission (b)National Development Council

(c) Finance Ministry (d) Union Cabinet

292.Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called.

(a)Scarce currency (b)Soft currency

(c)Gold currency (d) Hot currency

293.All the goods which are scarce and limited in supply are called

(a)Luxury goods (b)Expensive goods

(c)Capital goods (d) Economic goods

294.India’s biggest nationalized enterprise today is

(a)the Indian Railways

(b)the Indian Commercial Banking System

(c)the Indian power sector

(d) The official agency responsible for estimating National Income in India is

295.Which is the most essential function of an entrepreneur ?

(a)Supervision (b)Management

(c)Marketing (d) Risk bearing

296.When was the planning Commission set up in India ?

(a)1949 (b)1950

(c)1951 (d) 1952

297. “In God we trust, the rest have to bring data on the table.”This statement was made by the

famous

Industrialist.

(a)J.R.D .Tata (b)Aditya Birla

(c)Dhirubhai Ambani (d) Narayan Murthy

298.Paricipatory Notes (PNs) are associated with which one of the following ?

(a)Consolidated Fund of India (b)Foreign Institutional

Investors

(c)United Nations Development Programme (d) Kyoto Protocol

299.The largest public sector bank in India is.

(a)Central Bank of India (b)Punjab National Bank

(c)State Bank of India (d) Indian Overseas Bank

300.Which is the first public sector unit in India to be disinvested?

(a)CMC Ltd (b)Modern Food Industries

(c)BALCO (d) Hindustan Ltd

301.Where is the Central Coffee Research Institute situated ?

(a)Balehonnur, Karnataka (b)Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu

(c)Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala (d) Hyderabad, Andhra Pradesh

302.Working capital is measured by

(a)Current liabilities plus fixed asset

(b) Current assets less current liabilities

(c) current liabilities less fixed asset

(d) Current assets plus fixed asset

303.World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO) was formed in the year

(a)1967 (b)1976 (c) 1965 (d) 1968

304.Golden Handshake Scheme is associated with

(a)Inviting foreign companies (b) Private investment in public

enterprises

(c) Establishing joint enterprises (d) Voluntary retirement

305.Which of the following is not in the infrastructure sector ?

(a)Power generation (b) Construction of roads

(c)Food production (d) Expansion of airports

306.Scheduled Banks have to be registered with

(a)SEBI (b) RBI

(c)SBI (d)Finance Ministry

307. ‘Respect yourself’ is the baseline of

(a)ICICI (b) HPCL

(c)HDFC (d)TVS Motor

308.In India, one-rupee coins and notes and subsidiary coins are issued by

(a)The Reserve Bank of India (b) The Central Government

(c)The State Bank of India (d)The Unit Trust of India

309.New capital issue is placed in

(a)Secondary market (b) Grey market

(c)Black market (d)Primary market

310.Maximum number of member in primary co-operative society.

(a)7 (b)13 (c)25 (d) None of these

311. Returning Officer of an Apex Society appointed by

(a) Registrar (b) State Co-operative Election Commission

(c) State Election Commission (d) Central Election Commission

312.Cooperative election dispute is filed before……………….

(a) Registrar (b) State Co-operative Election Commission

(c) Arbitrator (d) Co-operative Arbitration Court

313.The government nominee s in a District Co-operative Bank is appointed by

(a) Registrar (b) State government

(c)Central government (d) Local self government

314.The presiding officer for the election of a president of society is selected by

(a) Registrar (b) Returning Officer

(c)General body (d) Committee

315.Stock exchange is a place where ……..securities are bought and sold.

(a) Fresh (b) First hand

(c)Second hand (d) None of these

316…………..is concerned with the first time sale of securities.

(a) Initial public offer (b) Rights issue

(c)Preferential issue (d) None of these

317. Dalal street,. which is related with :

( a)BSE (b)OTCEI

(c)NSEI (d)SEBI

318.The Headquarters of Coir fed is located at

(a)Kottayam (b)Alappuzha

(c)Palakkad (d)Wayanadu

319.The Headquarters of L.I.C is situated in

a)Mumbai (b) Cochin

(c)New Delhi (d)Hyderabad

320.Ware housing removes the hindrance of ………………………

( a)Time (b)Knowledge

(c)Place (d)Finance

321.Transportation removes the hindrance of ………………………

( a) Finance (b)Knowledge

(c)Place (d) Time

322. Advertising removes the hindrance of ………………………

( a)Person (b) Time

(c) Finance (d) Knowledge

323………………is the Charter or magnacarta of the company.

(a) Articles of Association (b) Memorandum of Association

(c)Prospectus (d)None of these

324. Multiple shops are also known as……………

(a) Self service stores (b) Chain stores

(c)Shopping by post (d) None of these

325.Door to door selling is carried out by……………

(a) hawkers and pedlars (b)cheap jacks

(c)second shop (d) None of these

326.Fishing is a ……………. type of Industry

(a) Extractive (b) Genetic

(c)Manufacturing (d) Construction

327.Building works is a………….industry

(a) Construction (b) Extractive

(c) Genetic (d)Manufacturing

328. Poultry farming is a……………industry

(a)Manufacturing (b) Construction

(c) Extractive (d) Genetic

329. Textile industry is a……………………….industry

(a) Construction (b) Extractive

(c) Genetic (d)Manufacturing

330.A shop which deals tea only in bulk quantity

(a)Import trade (b) Internal trade

(c) Whole sale trade (d)Retail trade

331. Sale of tea leaf to Gulf countries is an example of

(a)Import trade (b) Internal trade

(c) Whole sale trade (d)Export trade

332. Purchase of petroleum products by India from Iran is an example of

(a) Internal trade (b) Whole sale trade

(c)Export trade (d)Import trade

333. . Which of the following is a part of B2B, E-commerce model?

(a)Business offering services to customers

(b) Application for license

(c)Employee salary payment

(d)Placing order with suppliers

334. Consumers seeking clarification on price, terms is an example of

(a)B2B (b) B2C

(c)B2G (d)B2E

335. Which of the following is a profession, which is an economic activity?

(a)A doctor works in a Government hospital

(b) A doctor runs his own clinic

(c)A doctor treats his own family members

(d) None of these

336. Which of the following is an employment, which is an economic activity?

(a) A doctor treats his own family members

(b) A doctor works in a Government hospital

(c)Running a hotel

(d) None of these

337. Which of the following is not a natural cause of business risk?

(a) Strike (b) Earthquake

(c)Tsunami (d) Rain

338. Which of the following is not a Economic causes of business risk?

(a)Changes in demand (b) Draught

(c)Trade depression (d) Changes in price

339. Which of the following is not a Political causes of business risk?

(a)Change in Government policies (b) Change in licensing policy

(c) Change in taxation policy (d) None of these

340. Which of the following is not a human causes of business risk?

(a)Theft (b) Strike

(c) riots (d) None of these

341. Which of the following is not a Managerial causes of business risk?

(a)Poor planning (b) Absence of research

(c) Earthquake (d) Mismanagement of resources

342.Which of the following agencies/organizations has proposed to impose Global Taxes on all the

banks?

(a)IMF (b) WTO

(c)World Bank (d) Federal Reserve of USA

343.In each rupee earned by the Government of India, how many paise come from the tax

collections or

receipts ?

(a)29 p. (b) 50 P.

(c) 33 P. (d) 71 P.,( at present, it is 61p)

344.Who amongst the following is the author of the book “General and Industrial Management” ?

(a)Henry Fayol (b) Mary Parker Follet

(c) George Elton Mayo (d) Abraham.H. Maslow

345.Who amongst the following is the author of the book “Competing for the future” ?

(a)C.K.Prahlad and Gary Hamel (b) Mary Parker Follet

(c) George Elton Mayo (d) Henry Fayol

346. Who amongst the following is the author of the book “Managing by Result” ?

(a) George Elton Mayo (b) Mary Parker Follet

(c) C.K.Prahlad and Gary Hamel (d) Peter. F.Drucker

347. Who amongst the following is the author of the book “Shop management” ?

(a) Peter. F.Drucker (b) Mary Parker Follet

(c) Fredrick Winslow Taylor (d) Henry Fayol

348. Who amongst the following is the author of the book “Motivation and Personality” ?

(a) George Elton Mayo (b) Abraham.H. Maslow

(c) Michael .E. Porter (d) Peter. F.Drucker

349. Who amongst the following is the author of the book “The function of Executive” ?

(a) Chester I Bernard (b) Fredrick Winslow Taylor

(c) Frederick Herzberg (d) Abraham.H. Maslow

350. Who amongst the following is the author of the book “The Human side of Enterprise” ?

(a) Fredrick Winslow Taylor (b) Chester I Bernard

(c) Douglas Mc Gregor (d) Abraham.H. Maslow

351.Which of the following types of companies/organizations issue ‘ULIP’ ?

(a) Insurance companies (b) Banks

(c) NABARD (d) RBI

352.Insurance business in India is regulated by which of the following authorities ?

(a) NFCG (b) IRDA

(c) CII (d)FICCI

353.Which of the following countries was the host of the SAARC Summit 2010 ?

(a) Bangladesh (b)India

(c) Nepal (d)Bhutan

354.Which of the following terms is not used in the world of finance, banking and insurance ?

(a) Devaluation (b)Amnesty

(c) Hard currency (d)Sinking fund

355. Which of the following is the only public sector company in the field of life insurance ?

(a)General Insurance Company (b)New India Assurance Company

(c) Sahara Life Insurance (d)Life Insurance Corporation of India

356. “A contract that pledges payment of an agreed upon amount to the person(or his/her nominee)

on

the happening of an event covered against” is technically known as

(a)Death coverage (b)Life insurance

(c) Saving for future (d)Provident Fund

357. What is the full form of the term ‘NPA’ as used in banking environment ?

(a)Not Profitable Asset (b)New Potential Accounts

(c) Non Performing Assets (d)Net Performing Assets

358. Which of the following is the first country to introduce paper money?

(a)South Africa (b)China

(c)USA (d)India

359.The first bank in India ?

(a)Bank of Hindustani (b)Punjab National Bank

(c)Bank of Baroda (d)State Bank of India

360.Who is the father of Indian economic system

(a)Sardar Vallabhai Pattel (b)Dada bhai Navaroji

(c)Jawaharlal Nehru (d) None of these

361. India is a:

(a)Socialist economy (b)Mixed economy

(c)Capitalist economy (d) Market economy

362.A mixed economy has the features of:

(a)Capitalism (b)Socialism

(c)Feudalism (d) Both(a) and (b)

363. Kisan credit card scheme was introduced in India for the first time in the year

(a)1998 (b)2000

(c)1991 (d) 2002

364.Paper Currency was introduced in India for the first time in the year

(a)1872 (b)1882

(c)1947 (d) 1956, answer is 1806

365.Voluntary Retirement Scheme was introduced in India for the first time by………….bank

(a)Central Bank of India (b)Indian Overseas Bank

(c)ICICI Bank (d)Punjab National Bank

366. Industrial Ministry of India was established in the year

(a)1976 (b)1980

(c)1991 (d) 1969, (I think, the answer is 1995)

367.Who has written the book, ‘Development as freedom’?

(a)Amartya Sen. (b)C.Rangarajan

(c)Manmohan Singh (d) M.S.Swaminathan

368. Who amongst the following is the author of the book “To A Hunger Free World” ?

(a)C.Rangarajan (b)Manmohan Singh

(c)Amartya Sen. (d) M.S.Swaminathan

369.Who amongst the following is the author of the book “Poverty and Famine” ?

(a) M.S.Swaminathan (b)Sonia Gandhi

(c)Amartya Sen. (d) C.Rangarajan

370.Union Budget is always presented first in

(a) The Lok Sabha (b)The Rajya Sabha

(c)Joint Session of the Parliament (d) Meeting of the Union Cabinet

371.Who is called the father of the Green revolution in India?

(a) Bill Gates (b)Charles Babbage

(c) C.Rangarajan (d) M.S.Swaminathan

372.As per the fourth All-India Census of MSMEs,2006-2007, -which was released on November

19,2010

-the number of sick units in Kerala

(a)5,050 (b) 5,060

(c )5,078 (d)5,068

373.First railway line in India was laid in

(a) 1835 (b) 1853

(c )1923 (d)1917

374. The Special Economic Zone Act passed by parliament in :

(a)2005 (b)2001

(c)1995 (d)1991

375.All industrial units with a capital investment of ………………and above will treated as mega

project

,under industrial policy, 2007 of Kerala.

(a)Rs.200 crore (b) Rs 100 crore

(c) Rs.90 crore (d) Rs 150 crore

376. Generally if the risk involved in a firm is higher

(a) cost of capital will be lower (b)cost of capital will be higher

(c )cost of capital is neutral (d) None of these

377.The legal provisions relating to partnership are contained in

(a) The Partnership Act,1930 (b) The Partnership Act,1932

(c ) The Indian Partnership Act,1930 (d) The Indian Partnership Act,1932

378.The Indian Partnership Act,1932 extends to

(a) Whole of India (b) Whole of India except Jammu & Kashmir

(c ) northern India (d) states notified from time to time

379.Prior to the passing of the Indian Partnership Act,1932,the provisions relating to the

partnerships

were contained in

(a) The Companies Act (b) The Indian Contract Act,1872

(c ) The Sale of Goods Act,1930 (d) The Indian Partnership Act,1872

380.The legal definition of the ‘partnership’ is given in which of the following section of the Indian

Partnership Act,1932 ?

(a) Section 2 (b) Section 3 (c ) Section 4 (d) Section 5

381.Partnership is the relation between persons who have agreed to share the profits of a business

carried on by

(a) all of them jointly

(b) all of them or any of them acting for all

(c ) any of the partners acting on his own behalf

(d) a manager appointed to carry on the business

382.Which of the following is not an essential feature of partnership ?

(A) Association of two or more persons

(B) Organized to carry on business

(C) Separate legal entity

(D) Registration

(a)Both (A)&(B) (b)Both (B)&(C)

(c)Both(C)&(D) (d) Both (B)&(D)

383.The minimum number of persons required to form a partnership is………….

(a)two persons (b)five persons

(c)seven persons (d) eleven persons

384.The maximum number of person in a firm carrying on the banking business, should not

exceed……

(a) five persons (b) seven persons

(c) ten persons (d)twenty persons

385. The maximum number of person in a firm carrying on any business, other than banking

business,

should not exceed……

(a) five persons (b) seven persons

(c) ten persons (d)twenty persons

386.The limit for maximum number of partners in a firm is provided in

(a) The Indian Partnership Act,1932 (b) The Companies Act,1956

(c) The Indian Contract Act,1872 (d) None of these

387. Where the maximum number of partners in a firm carrying on banking business exceeds ten

and in

any other firm exceeds twenty, then the partnership become a…………….

(a) Company (b) illegal association

(c) corporation (d)legal association

388.Which of the following is an essential feature of partnership?

(a) Result of an agreement (b) Sharing of profits

(c) Mutual agency between partners (d)All of these

389.The relation of partnership arises from

(a) agreement (b) status

(c) feelings (d) None of these

390.A partnership firm comes into existence by

(a)operation of law (b) agreement

(c) status (d) None of these

391.A partnership firm come into existence by agreement between all the partners, and such

agreement

should be

(a) express agreement only (b) Implied agreement only

(c) either express or Implied (d) registered

392.A Written agreement by which a partnership firm is created is known as

(a)Partnership Deed (b) Deed document

(c) License agreement (d) None of these

393.A partnership deed usually contain the particulars relating to

(a)name of firm and partners (b) nature of business and duration of firm

(c) capital contribution (d) all of these

394.A partnership firm is formed to carry on some joint business and such business should consist

of a

(a)long and permanent undertaking (b) single business venture or undertaking

(c) any of these two (d) None of these

395.Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(a)All the partners must be entitled to profits in case of profits.

(b) All the partners must agree to share the loss in case of losses

(c) partners may agree that one or more of them shall not be liable for losses.

(d) No partners can be excluded from sharing the profits of a firm.

396.In a partnership firm, each partner is considered as an

(a)employee of the firm (b) officer of the firm

(c) agent of the firm (d) both (a) and (b)

397.One of the important features of a firm, which distinguishes it from other similar association, is

the

(a)sharing of profit (b) mutual agency

(c) joint business (d) none of these

398.Wchich of the following statement is incorrect?

(a)All the partners must be entitled to profits in case of profits.

(b) All the partners must agree to share the loss in case of losses

(c)Partners may agree that one or more of them shall not be liable for losses.

(d) No partner can be excluded from sharing the profits of a firm

399.The persons who receive the profits but are not the partners, fall in the category of

(a)non-partnership interests (b) limited partners

(c) profit-sharing partners (d) dormant partners

400.Persons who have entered into partnership with one another are collectively called

(a)partners (b) firm

(c) business (d) either (b) and (c)

401. Persons who have entered into partnership with one another are individually called

(a)partners (b) Firm

(c) Business (d) Agents

402.The name under which the partnership business is carried on is called.

(a) Business name (b) Regular name

(c) Firm name (d) None of these

403.A partnership firm

(a) is a legal person (b) is not a legal person

(c) has a legal status of its own (d) has separate legal entity apart from its

partners

404. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(a)A firm has no separate legal entity.

(b) Same partners may constitute different firms

(c) Partners of a firm are considered its employees.

(d) None of these

405 .A partner who becomes a partner by agreement and takes active part in the conduct of

partnership business is known as.

(a) Active partner (b) Nominal partner

(c) Dormant or sleeping partner (d) None of these

406.A dormant partner is one who is

(a) Not interested in the business of the firm

(b) Entitled to share profits only

(c) Neither active nor known to outsiders

(d) Not liable to outsiders.

407. A dormant partner is liable to third parties for the acts of the firm

(a) Only if his existence is known to third parties

(b) Whether or not his existence is known to third parties

(c) Only if he undertakes to be liable to third parties

(d) Only if the other partners so desire

408. A partner in profit is one who is

(a) Entitled to share only business profits (b) Not liable for any business losses

(c) Not liable for acts of the firm (d) Both (a) and (b)

409.Which of the following statement about a minor partner is incorrect?

(a) A minor can be admitted only to the benefits of an existing firm

(b) A minor cannot be admitted to the benefits of a new firm taking minor as partner

(c) A minor cannot be a full-fledged partner in a firm

(d) A minor can be a full-fledged partner in a firm

410. A person who represent himself to be a partner but in reality he is not so, is known as a

(a) Partner by holding out (b) Partner by default

(c) Inactive partner (d) Legal partner

411.A partnership is known as partnership at will where

(A) Its duration is not fixed

(B) Its duration is fixed

(C) It can be dissolved at any time

(D) Legal partner

(a)Both (A)&(B) (b)Both (B)&(C)

(c)Both(C)&(D) (d) Both (A)&(C)

412. Where there is no provision in the partnership deed regarding the dissolution of partnership,

the

firm is known as

(a) Indefinite partnership (b) Partnership at will

(c) General partnership (d )Contingent partnership

413. A partnership where its duration is fixed and cannot be dissolved by any partner at his will, is

Known as

(a) Particular partnership (b) General partnership

(c) Partnership for fixed period (d) Partnership at will

414. Which of the following statement about ‘partnership for a fixed period ‘is incorrect?

(a) It is dissolved on the expiry of fixed period

(b) It can also be dissolved before fixed period by adopting the modes of dissolution

(c)Both of these

(d) None of these

415.where a ‘partnership for a fixed period’ continues to carry on business even after the expiry of

fixed

period, then it becomes a

(a) Partnership at will (b) Illegal association

(c) Void partnership (d) Renewed partnership

416. A partnership formed for the purpose of carrying on particular adventure or undertaking is

known as

(a) specified partnership (b) particular partnership

(c) limited partnership (d) None of these

417. If after the completion of particular adventure or undertaking, the firm continues to carry on

some

other adventure, then it becomes a

(a) Void partnership (b) Renewed partnership

(c) Illegal association (d) Partnership at will

418.A partnership formed for the purposes of carrying on business in general, is known as

(a) General partnership (b) Permanent partnership

(c) Special partnership (d) None of these

419. Registration of partnership firm with the registrar of firms, is …………………….

(a) Compulsory (b) Optional

(c) Required under section 54 (d) None of these

420. Though the registration of a firm is optional, yet indirectly it becomes necessary due to the

reason that

(a) A firm legally comes into existence only on registration

(b) A firm can deal with third parties only on registration

(c) The disabilities due to non-registration are removed only on registration

(d) Both (a) and (b)

421. The registration of a firm is effected by filing a prescribed application along with the

prescribed fee

with the………….

(a) Registrar of companies (b) Registrar of firms

(c) Registrar of conveyance (d) Competent court

422. The prescribed application form for registration of the firm should be deposited with the

registrar

of firms of that area

(a) Which is convenient for partners

(b) In which the working partner of the firm resides

(c) In which any place of business of firm is situated or proposed to be situated.

(d) Which is agreed by all the partners for the purposes of registration

423. Which of the following statement about the registration of a firm is incorrect?

(a) It may be effected before filing a suit against third party

(b) It may be effected at any time after its formation

(c) It may be effected at the time of its formation

(d) It must be effected at the time of its formation

424.The application form for registration of firm should state the

(a) Name of firm and its place of business

(b) Name and address of partners and date of joining the firm

(c) Duration of the firm

(d) all of these

425. The application form for registration should be signed by

(a) All the partners or their authorized agents.

(b) The active partners only

(c) Minimum two partners even if there are more than two

(d) The managing partner only

426.After the registration of a firm, a change in the principal place of business of the firm requires

(a) A simple information to the registrar

(b) A simple information to the court

(c) An affidavit of a managing partner about the change

(d) Almost a new registration

427.An information to the registrar about a change in the name or permanent address of any partner,

after registration, is required to be given by

(a) Concerned partner only (b) All partners jointly

(c) Any partner or agent of firm (d) None of these

428.Where a new partner joins the firm after its registration, such a change in the constitution of the

firm, requires

(a) Almost a new registration

(b) a notice, along with date of joining, to the registrar

(c) A simple information to the court

(d) None of these

429.Where an existing partner retires from the firm after its registration, such a change in the

constitution of the firm requires

(a) Almost a new registration

(b) a notice, along with date of retirement, to the registrar

(c) An indemnity bond from a retiring partner

(d) None of these

430.A notice to the registrar about the admission or retirement of a partner, after registration, is

required to be given by

(a) All the partners jointly (b) any continuing partner

(c) new or retiring partner (d) either (b) or (c)

431.Any person who knowingly signs any statement containing false particulars about registration,

shall

be liable to punishment with imprisonment up to……………..

(a) one month (b) two month

(c) three month (d) six month

432.In the absence of any agreement, the partners are entitled to share the profits

(a) Equally (b) In the ratio of capital

(c) In the ratio of loan advanced (d) As decided by registrar

433.A minor can be admitted to the benefits of an existing firm with the consent of

(a) All the partners (b) Majority of the partners

(c) Managing partner (d) Senior partner

434.The liability of the partners in a firm is……………………

(a) limited (b) unlimited

(c) joint and several (d) both (a) and (c)

435.Where the business of the firm is closed down and the relation between all the partners come to

an

end, it is known as

(a) Dissolution of partnership (b) Dissolution of firm

(c) Dissolution of business (d) None of these

436. In which of the following cases, a partnership firm can be dissolved without the intervention of

the

Court?

(a) Dissolution by consent of all partners

(b) Dissolution by a contract between all partners

(c) Dissolution of partnership at will, by notice

(d) All of these

437. When all the partners except one become insolvent, the firm is

(a) Compulsorily dissolved (b) Not compulsorily dissolved

(c) Reconstituted (d) Renewed

438. Which of the following firm can be dissolved by a written notice of dissolution given by any

Partners?

(a) General partnership (b) Particular partnership

(c) Partnership at will (d) Both (a) and (b)

439.If the assets of the firm are not sufficient to discharge the debts and liabilities of the firm, the

partners shall bear the deficiency in

(a) equal shares (b) profit sharing ratio

(c) capital ratio (d) none of these

440.Which of the following is an essential feature of a partnership?

(a) Artificial person (b) Perpetual succession

(c) Common seal (d) All of these

441. The authorized capital of a company is fixed by…………..of the company.

(a) Articles of association (b) Memorandum of association

(c)prospectus (d) none of these

442. The company created by special Act of Parliament/Assembly is called………………….

(a) Chartered (b)Statutory

(c) Registered (d) All of these

443.Issue shares at a price greater than that of its nominal value is called issue------------------------

(a) at par (b) at premium

(c) at discount (d) none of these

444. The invitation made by the company to the public for subscription of its shares or debentures is

called

(a) Table A (b) Articles of association

(c) Memorandum of association (d) Prospectus

445. A new company cannot issue shares at

(a) Par (b) Premium

(c) discount (d) None of these

446.The liability of members of a company is usually…………………………………….

(a) limited (b) unlimited

(c) joint and several (d) both (a) and (c)

447. Debentures are…………………………….of a company

(a) Creditorship capital (b)Ownership capital

(c) Share capital (d) None of these

448. Debenture holder can---------------------------------

(a) Take part in the management of the company

(b) Cannot take part in the management of the company

(c)Vote in the meeting

(d) None of these

449.------is the maximum amount of capital that can be raised by the company by way of issue of

shares.

(a) Authorized capital (b) Issued capital

(c) Reserve capital (d) Paid up capital

450 …………..is that part of uncalled capital which has been reserved by a special resolution of

the

company to be called only in the event of its winding up

(a) Subscribed capital (b) Issued capital

(c) Reserve capital (d) Paid up capital

451. Which of the following documents are essential for registration at the time of incorporation of

the

company?

(a) Memorandum of Association (b) Articles of Association

(c) Directors list (d) All of these

452. Which of the following is not a part of the Memorandum of Association of a company?

(a) Name clause (b) Situation clause

(c) Asset clause (d) Liability clause

453. Function of a promoter………………………………..

(a) Discovery of business idea (b) Detailed investigation of project

(c) Assembling of resources (d) All of these

454. The first step in the formation of a company is to be prepare a document called..

(a) Memorandum of Association (b) Articles of Association

(c) Prospectus (d) Statement in lieu of prospectus

455. The capital clause states the…………….

(a) Liability of the company (b) Object of the company

(c) Capital of the company (d) None of these

456.The Domicile clause states the…………….

(a) Liability of the company (b) Object of the company

(c) Capital of the company (d) None of these

457. The Memorandum of association is governed by the

(a) Companies Act (b) SEBI Act

(c) Minimum Wages Act (d) None of these

458. Articles of Association need not to be registered in case of

(a)An unlimited Company (b) A Public company limited by shares

(c) A company limited by guarantee (d) A private company limited by shares

459. Articles of association can be altered by passing

(a)A special resolution (b) An ordinary resolution

(c)A resolution with special notice (d) None of these

460. Share capital of a company is………………

(a)Preference shares (b) Equity shares

(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

461.Sweat equity shares means equity shares issued by the company for providing know how

(a)To its directors (b) To its employees

(c) To its creditors (d) Both (a) and (b)

462.An individual can be a director in not more than

(a)20 companies (b) 25 companies

(c) 15 companies (d) None of these

463. The management of the company is delivered to some selected persons, who are known as

(a)Members (b) Shareholders

(c) Auditors (d) Directors

464. If the articles requires a director must purchase………… shares to become a director

(a)5 shares (b) 100 shares

(c) Qualification shares (d) None of these

465.A director should vacate his office if he fails to obtain Qualification shares with in

(a)One month (b) Two months

(c) Three months (d) None of these

466. Casual vacancy of a director may be filled by the

(a)Board of directors (b) Shareholders

(c) Central government (d) None of these

467. The first annual general meeting of the company is held within…………..of its incorporation

(a) 9 months (b) 12 months

(c) 15 months (d) 18 months

468. Statutory meeting is held during the life time of the company

(a) Only once (b) two times

(c) three times (d) five times

469.After obtaining of certificate to commence business a company may be wound up if it does not

commence business with in

(a) 1 year (b) 2 year

(c) 3 year (d) None of these

470. The new concept of producer companies is based on the recommendations of an expert

committee

led by

(a) Y.K.Alagh (b) Y.K.Bhusan

(c) L.Tandon (d) None of these

471.L.L.P ,Stands for

(a) ) Limited liability companies (b) Limited liability partnership

(c) ) Limited liability firms (d) None of these

472.The main object of SEBI is to prescribe required standards for

(a) Urban-bank (b)Co-op.Bank

(c) Rural Bank (d)Merchant Bank

473. Corporate tax is levied on

(a) Production of companies (b)Sale made by companies

(c) Income of companies (d) Inventory

474.’KEN WOOD’ is associated with

(a) Shoes (b)electronics

(c) cassettes (d)furniture

475.’ASHOK LEYLAND’ belongs to

(a) Thapars (b)Birlas

(c) Hindujas (d)Kirloskar

476.’NABARD’ is a/an

(a)firm (b)export house

(c) bank (d)tax department

477. ‘MRTPC’ is an abbreviated name of an organization whose last name is…

(a) Committee (b) Council

(c)Commission (d) None of these

478. “The Complete Man “ is the base line of

(a) Mafatlal (b)Colgate Gel

(c)Godrej (d) Raymond

479Which of the following is an associate state bank?

(a) Bank of Mysore (b)Axis Bank

(c) VYSYA Bank (d) Nainital bank

480.An oligopoly in industry occurs where there are (is)

(a) few buyers (b)few sellers

(c) Both(a) and (b) (d) none of these

481.If a country has greater imports than exports it is said to have

(a) Unfavorable balance of payment (b) Favorable balance of payment

(c) A gold surplus (d) none of these

482.The least important consideration in locating shopping centre is

(a) transportation (b) consumer’s income

(c) population density (d) sufficient electric power

483.The corporate form of business has the following advantages except

(a) limited liability (b) perpetual life

(c) ease to raise capital (d) easier to form proprietorship

484.Hedging is usually found in

(a) Auto industry (b) Computer industry

(c) Steel industry (d) Stock industry

485.Which of the following is not the responsibility of the manager?

(a) Planning (b) Supervision

(c) Payroll work (d) co-ordination

486. Which of the following is not the objective of business enterprise?

(a) Maximization of profit

(b) Maximization of sales

(c) Maximization of total investment

(d) Maximization of the number of market shares

487.Which of the following places is well known for diamond cutting and polishing industry?

(a) Maximization of profit

(b) Maximization of sales

(c) Maximization of total investment

(d) Maximization of the number of market shares

488.Inflation implies

(a) rise in prices of consumer goods (b) rise in money supply

(c) rise in general price index (d) rise in budget deficit

489.An industrial unit is considered sick when

(a) it incurs cash losses eroding its net worth (b) it faces prolonged strike

(c) it loses foreign market (d) its share value falls steeply

490..The Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry(FICCI) was founded in 1927

by

(a) Birla and Tata (b) Tata and Thakurdas

(c) Thakurdas and Birla (d)Tata and Godrej

491.Operation flood refers to………………….

(a) Rice (b)Silk

(c) Maize (d) Milk

492.The First Co-operative Movement in India was initiated in

(a) Agricultural credit (b) Farming activities

(c) Consumer co-operation (d) Agricultural marketing

493.The Chairman of ‘NORKA’

(a) Chief Justice of Kerala (b) Governor of Kerala

(c)Chief Minister of Kerala (d) Minister of Home affaires

494.Present five year plan of India is

(a) 10th plan (b) 11 th plan

(c)12th plan (d)13th plan

495.The ‘E-Series’ brand of cell phones belongs to which of the following manufacturers?

(a) Sony Ericson (b) Nokia

(c)Samsung (d)LG

496.Pallivasal Hydro Electric Project was commissioned under

(a) Srimoolam Thirunal (b) Sri Visakham Thirunal

(c)Sri Chithira Thirunal (d)Sri Swathi Thirunal

497.Green Revolution was started in

(a) Mexico (b) India

(c)Philippines (d)USA

498.Which of the following is known as the ‘plastic money’?

(a) Cheque (b) Coin

(c)Bond (d)Credit Card

499.The first mobile phone service in India?

(a) BSNL (b)Airtel

(c)Hutch (d)Tata

500.The prime minister who nationalized the banks of India

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b)Lal Bahadur Shastri

(c)Morarji Desai (d)Mrs.Indira Gandhi